Thad, thanks for your reply and for addressing my points.

Although your had me think for a moment, I do think it is not exactly applicable. BUt more important, I want to adress what you said about evening up the advantage by playing two game sets.

That alone is insufficient-- for instance, if there is a game where player 1 has a forced win 100% of the time, would it make sense to simply play two game sets and ignore any attempts to give player 2 a chance? NO, it wouldn't, and by the same reasoning, the possibility of playing two game sets is no reason to neglect the restriction that gives player 2 more of a chance.